Which of the following is not considered a skin defense?

a. Perspiration

b. Melanin

c. Sebum

d. Lysosomes

e. Antimicrobial peptides

Which lesion/rash is mismatched with the disease?

a. Ulcer – inflammatory acne

b. Honey-colored crusted lesion – impetigo

c. Papule rash – wart

d. Maculopapular rash – measles

e. Vesicular rash – chickenpox

Which of the following is associated with chronic neuralgia?

a. Herpes simplex 1 virus

b. Streptococcus pyogenes

c, Measles virus

d. Varicella-zoster virus

e. Papilloma virus

Choose the false statement about HSV-1:

a. Viruses may be transmitted via wrestling mats.

b. Viruses may be transmitted via contact with lesions.

c. Viruses may be transmitted via the saliva of others with the virus.

d. Viruses may reactivate under stress-inducing conditions.

e. Viruses can be easily cured with common antivirals.

Which genus is primarily associated with acne?

a. Staphylococcus

b. Propionibacterium

c. Clostridium

d. Streptococcus

e. Pseudomonas

All of the following are commonly associated with Streptococcus pyogenes EXCEPT:

a. impetigo.

b. cellulitis.

c. scalded skin syndrome.

d. necrotizing fasciitis.

e. strep throat.

Which of the following is not a virulence factor of P. aeruginosa?

a. Protein A

b, Exotoxins

c. Enzymes that damage host tissues

d. Endotoxins

e. Factors that enhance biofilm formation

Select ALL the true statements about dermatophytes:

a. They are a group of bacteria that cause cutaneous infections.

b. They may be treated with antifungals without knowing the exact causative agent.

c. They are easily treated with antibiotics.

d. They are commonly acquired from the soil, environment, or animals.

e. They produce enzymes that digest keratin found in hair, nails, and skin.

Select the false statement about cutaneous candidiasis:

a. The most common causative species is Candida albicans.

b. Candida albicans can be part of normal microbiota.

c. Usage of antibiotics can increase the chance of cutaneous candidiasis.

d. Changes in pH can permit overgrowth.

e. The causative agents are naturally found as mold filaments.

Conjunctivitis is caused by the following agent types (select ALL that apply):

a. bacteria.

b. viruses.

c. protozoa.

d. fungi.

e. helminths.

Which best describes conjunctivitis (select ALL that apply)?

a. Itchy eyes

b. Scarred cornea

c. Red eyes

d. Inverted eyelashes

e. Scarred conjunctiva

Acanthamoeba protozoa species are associated with:

a. keratitis.

b. conjunctivitis.

c. river blindness.

d. trachoma.

e. all of the above.

Select the false statement about trachoma:

a. The causative agent is bacterial.

b. It is the leading cause of infectious blindness in the United States.

c. It is transmitted by unhygienic items, such as flies, fingers, and fomites.

d. Uncomplicated cases can be resolved with antibiotics.

e. Severe cases require surgery.

Your diabetic patient has a foot wound that has developed into serious necrosis and the recommended treatment has been sessions in the hyperbaric oxygen chamber. You are explaining to him what has contributed to this condition, including the causative agent, which is:

a. Bacillus anthracis.

b. Clostridium perfringens.

c. Corynebacteria diphtheriae.

d. Streptococcus pyogenes.

e. Pseudomonas aeroginosa.

A frantic mother comes into your clinic because her two-year-old child has had a very high fever for two days now, with mild diarrhea and coldlike symptoms. As you consider the differential list, which is the most likely causative agent if the fever breaks and is replaced with a rash by tomorrow?

a. Human parvovirus B19

b. Hand, foot, and mouth disease

c. Roseola

d. Rubella

e. Measles

Your patient is reminiscing about her childhood diseases while reviewing her medical history. She claims she had a really bad case of rubella (German measles) when she was a child and that she was very sick. You think she is confusing it with rubeola (measles) because:

a. measles can cause congenital rubella syndrome.

b. German measles causes a mild rash and is not likely to make a patient very sick.

c. the largest concern is for secondary infections like pneumonia.

d. she didn’t mention Koplik’s spots in the mouth or raised lesions.

e. the raised red rash usually begins on the trunk and spreads from there.

A child comes into your clinic with impetigo. The lab cultures a sample for further analysis. If the sample is S. aureus, which lab results would you expect?

a. Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase and coagulase positive

b. Gram-negative diplococci, catalase positive, and coagulase negative

c. Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase negative, and coagulase positive

d. Gram-positive cocci in chains, catalase positive, and coagulase negative

e. Gram-positive cocci in chains, catalase negative, and coagulase positive

A 65-year-old patient calls the nursing hotline to ask about some painful blisters arranged in a band on one side of his waist. After hearing about the lesions, you ask him if he had chickenpox as a child. This is because you feel you are hearing about a case of:

a. candidiasis.

b. measles.

c. herpes.

d. shingles.

e. rubella.

Concept Mapping:

Using the following terms, create a concept map to organize and review microbial diseases of the eyes.

- Acanthamoeba

- Adenoviruses

- Aspergillus

- Candida

- Chlamydia trachomatis

- Flies, fomites, fingers

- Fusarium

- Haemophilus influenzae

- Herpes simplex 1 virus

- Keratitis

- Moraxella

- River blindness

- Scarring of eyelid

- Staphylococcus species

- Streptococcus species

- Turning of lashes and further scarring